UP Police Constable – Law & GK Pack

Exam Pattern, Eligibility and Selection: What the Official Notices Say

This chapter sets out the written-test pattern, eligibility, reservation and selection rules of the 2025 UP Police constable recruitment, as the Uttar Pradesh Police Recruitment and Promotion Board (UPPRPB) states them in its advertisement of 31 December 2025 and its notice of 5 February 2026. Every figure comes from the board's notices unless it is labelled unofficial or as an arithmetic result. These rules decide how many marks you need, what you must prove and which stage can end your candidature.

KarmSakha preparation topics covered

• Posts, category split and key dates for 2025
• The written paper: 150 questions, 300 marks, two hours and the OMR rules
• Marks, qualifying minimums and the status of negative marking
• Eligibility: Class 12, nationality and age windows
• Reservation, domicile and certificates
• Selection stages, merit list and tie-break order
• Physical standards and the physical efficiency test
• Time planning, guessing arithmetic and the book's scope

What the official notices fix for this cycle

Two documents govern this cycle. The advertisement, PRPB-B (Aarakshi PAC & other categories)-07/2025 dated 31 December 2025, sets the posts, eligibility, age limits, fees, reservation and selection. The board's notice of 5 February 2026, with the same number, sets the written-test process: OMR format, language rule, marking, normalisation across shifts and the answer key. Where the notices and the service rules differ, the service rules, reservation law and government orders prevail (advertisement, clause 6(x)), and the board's decision on eligibility is final (clause 8).

The advertisement covers 32,679 posts across seven post-and-sex lines. The PAC and armed police line for men is the largest at 15,131, followed by Civil Police constable for men and women at 10,469. Clause 1.3 warns that vacancies may change and that recruitment may be cancelled at any stage without reasons. The table gives each line's category split. Every row adds to its total, and the column totals add to the same 32,679, so you can check any figure the advertisement prints.

The notices fix these dates. Online applications, after a one-time registration, ran from 31 December 2025 to 30 January 2026. The fee was ₹500 for general, EWS and OBC candidates and ₹400 for SC and ST candidates, and it is not refunded (clauses 2.4 and 5.10). The written test was set for 8, 9 and 10 June 2026 in six shifts, with different question papers in each shift (point 17). The board's notice list later shows the final answer key for the June 2026 written test and a DV/PST eligibility list, both dated 31 July 2026, and physical-test notices up to 8 October 2026 (section 7).

The written paper: 150 questions, 300 marks, two hours

The written test is objective, OMR-based and pen-and-paper: 150 questions carrying 300 marks, to be completed in two hours (point 1). Each question has four alternatives, and you choose the one you judge correct (point 6). Each correct answer carries 2 marks (point 4). The notice gives the total and the mark value, but no number of questions for any one subject. The four papers, with their Hindi names as printed, are in the table below, which also shows that no per-subject count is printed.

Questions are printed in Hindi and English, except in General Hindi, and the English version prevails in case of doubt (point 16). The notice calls the syllabus indicative, and it entertains no objection on syllabus matters after the examination (point 23). The General Knowledge list is long, so treat it as a guide to coverage, not as a list of predicted questions. After the test the board publishes an answer key and invites online objections. Defective questions are dropped, and their marks are distributed under an Allahabad High Court arrangement (clause 3.1(vii); point 19).

The board checks the OMR answer sheet electronically (point 10), and the notice makes the candidate responsible for any error in the centre code, roll number or booklet number written on it, so the sheet's mechanics count as much as your answers. Several rules are easy to break under pressure. Read the list below before the day, and practise on a sample sheet with the same pen. Check each shading against the question number as you go, because a sheet that is right at question 1 is much easier to keep right to question 150.

• Use only a black or blue ball-point pen to fill the bubbles (point 7).
• Mark one bubble per question. A mark, line or dot on any other bubble makes that question's answer read as wrong (point 11).
• Marks cannot be erased, whitened or refilled (point 13).
• Write the centre code, roll number and booklet number exactly. A mismatch can leave the sheet unchecked (points 8 to 10).

Marks, cut-offs and the negative-marking question

The only award the notices give for a correct answer is +2 (point 4), and points 13 and 20 separately state that marking more than one option earns no marks for that question. Neither notice prints a deduction for a wrong answer or a score for an unanswered question. On the notices as printed, the raw score is 2 multiplied by the number of correct answers, up to 300. A candidate who answers 100 questions correctly scores 200, whatever the other 50 questions contain. That reading applies to this cycle only, and no later cycle is covered by it.

A news report dated 30 December 2025 in Patrika says the UP cabinet approved, by circulation, amendments to the 2025 constable and jail-warder service rules, ending deductions for wrong answers in future recruitment. It says an official notification may follow, and it quotes none. The advertisement cites its rules 'as amended in 2025' (clause 3.1(iii)) but prints no marking rule. Some coaching guides print a deduction, and their figures differ. Those figures are unofficial, and this book does not rely on them.

The notices set minimum qualifying marks in the written test by category (point 5; clause 3.1(iii)). A candidate below the minimum for his or her category is not eligible for recruitment, whatever the rank. The minimums are shown in the table. They are floors, not cut-offs: the merit list is prepared category-wise within the vacancies (clause 3.4(i)), and no cut-off mark is printed for it. Marks are normalised across shifts under notification No. पीआरपीबी–एक-1(155)/2023 of 18 December 2023 (point 18), whose method this book does not reproduce.

Eligibility: education, nationality and age

You need a Class 12 pass from a board established by law in India, or a government-recognised equivalent (clause 2.6). The qualification and its mark-sheet or certificate must be held at application. Candidates who have appeared for, or are appearing in, that examination are not eligible (note (i)). Nationality (clause 2.5) covers an Indian citizen; a Tibetan refugee who came before 1 January 1962 to settle permanently; and a person of Indian origin who migrated from Pakistan, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Kenya, Uganda or Tanzania with the same intention. A Tibetan refugee (category ख) needs a state government eligibility certificate and one from the DIG, Intelligence Branch, Uttar Pradesh. A person of Indian origin (category ग) needs only the state certificate, which is issued for no more than one year; after that he may stay in service only if he acquires Indian citizenship (clause 2.5 provisos).

Age is measured on 1 July 2025 (clause 2.8). A man must have attained 18 and must not have attained 22, so his birth date lies between 2 July 2003 and 1 July 2007, both inclusive. A woman must not have attained 25, so her birth date lies between 2 July 2000 and 1 July 2007. Clause 2.9 gives relaxations: 5 years for SC, ST and OBC candidates and UP government employees (the SC, ST and OBC relief applies to UP original residents only), and 3 years for UP ex-servicemen after service is deducted. Relaxations do not stack: only the largest applies (clause 4.1, notes (ग) and (घ)).