The CBT-1 Pattern, Eligibility and a 60-Minute Strategy
This chapter sets out the CBT-1 rules you plan around and turns the marking scheme into arithmetic you can check in seconds. Every pattern figure comes from the Centralised Employment Notice (CEN) No. 01/2026, and each one carries its paragraph number so you can verify it against the notice. Exam dates are not part of the notice, so they are treated separately in the exam-day section.
KarmSakha preparation topics covered
- The CBT-1 pattern: 60 minutes, 75 questions, 75 marks and one-third negative marking
- The stages after CBT-1: CBT-2, the Computer Based Aptitude Test, document verification and medical examination
- The age limit on 1 July 2026, category relaxations and the date-of-birth window
- The Annexure-A educational routes for the Assistant Loco Pilot post
- The A-1 medical standard, the LASIK bar and the self-declaration at application
- Scoring arithmetic: the penalty for wrong answers and the expected value of a guess
- Qualifying percentages for CBT-1 and how to convert them into marks
- A 40-second first-pass target, pacing checkpoints and exam-day rules
What CBT-1 Tests: Pattern, Marks and Time
CBT-1 is the first stage of selection for the Assistant Loco Pilot post under CEN No. 01/2026. The paper has 75 objective questions with multiple-choice answers, a maximum of 75 marks and a time limit of 60 minutes. A correct answer earns one mark, so the highest possible raw score equals the number of questions. Para 12.1(c) sets this pattern for the notice as a whole. The notice names three subjects for CBT-1: Mathematics, Mental Ability and General Science. General Awareness is not one of them, so plan your study around those three subjects.
The notice says the questions are 'likely to cover' the topics in para 12.1(c)(vi), so those lists describe coverage rather than a closed syllabus. The Mathematics list includes Number system, BODMAS, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportion, Percentages and Time and Work. The Mental Ability list includes Analogies, Number Series, Coding and Decoding, Syllogism, Venn Diagram and Directions. The General Science list covers Physics, Chemistry and Life Sciences at 10th-standard level. Chapters 2 to 10 follow the three subjects in the order the notice gives them: Mathematics, then Mental Ability, then General Science.
Two naming points matter when you compare sources. The notice calls the reasoning subject Mental Ability for CBT-1, and the same topic list is headed General Intelligence and Reasoning for CBT-2 Part-A (para 12.2(g)(B)). The Mathematics list for CBT-2 Part-A matches the CBT-1 list word for word (para 12.2(g)(A)). The notice gives no question count for each subject, and this book does not assert one.
| Item | CBT-1 rule | CEN reference |
|---|---|---|
| Duration | 60 minutes | Para 12.1(c)(i) |
| Questions and marks | 75 questions; 75 maximum marks at 1 mark per question | Para 12.1(c)(ii) |
| Answer format | Objective, with multiple-choice answers | Para 12.1(c)(vi) |
| Negative marking | 1/3 mark deducted for each wrong answer | Para 12.1(c)(iii); instruction (xvii) |
| Use of the score | Screening for CBT-2 only; not counted in the final panel | Para 12.1(a) and (b) |
| Multi-shift sittings | Marks normalised where the test is held in more than one shift | Para 12.1(c)(iv) |
| Subjects | Mathematics; Mental Ability; General Science (Physics, Chemistry and Life Sciences at 10th standard) | Para 12.1(c)(vi)(A) to (C) |
Where CBT-1 Sits in the Recruitment Process
The notice lists five stages in order: CBT-1, CBT-2, the Computer Based Aptitude Test (CBAT), document verification (DV) and medical examination (para 12.0(b)). CBT-1 is only a screening test. Its marks decide who sits CBT-2, and they are not counted while the final panel is prepared (para 12.1(a) and (b)). Shortlisting is RRB-wise and community-wise, by normalised marks and merit among candidates who chose the same RRB (para 12.2(a)). The number shortlisted is capped at 15 times the vacancies notified for each RRB, and the Railways may raise or lower that limit (para 12.2(d) and (e)). Because the cap is set RRB by RRB, the same raw score can lead to different outcomes in different RRBs.
CBT-2 has 175 questions in 2 hours 30 minutes, in two parts: Part-A has 100 questions in 90 minutes, and Part-B has 75 questions in 60 minutes (para 12.2(f)(ii)). Negative marking at 1/3 applies to both parts. Part-B is a qualifying test. Every candidate, whatever the community, must score 35% in it, and only then do Part-A marks count for further shortlisting (para 12.2(f)(v) and (i)(B)). Part-A also has community minimums for eligibility (para 12.2(f)(vii)): 40% for UR and EWS, 30% for OBC (NCL) and SC, and 25% for ST, applied to Ex-Servicemen as per their community. Part-A covers Mathematics, General Intelligence and Reasoning, and Basic Science and Engineering. Part-B draws on DGT trade syllabi: ITI holders answer their own trade, and diploma and degree holders choose one trade from the notice's list (para 12.2(i)(D) and (E)).
CBAT shortlisting uses Part-A marks. Candidates equal to 8 times the vacancies for each community or category are called, provided they have qualified in Part-B (para 12.3(a)). The CBAT is conducted only in English and Hindi, with no negative marking (para 12.3(d)). Each battery must be cleared separately, and the qualifying mark in each is a T-score of 42 (para 12.3(c) and (f)). A T-score is a standard score with a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10, so T = 50 + 10z. A T-score of 42 therefore sits 0.8 standard deviations below the mean of the group used to standardise the battery.
Final merit is prepared RRB-wise from candidates who qualified in CBAT. The Part-A marks of CBT-2 and the CBAT scores carry equal weight, in a 50:50 ratio (para 12.4(a)). Candidates equal to the number of vacancies are shortlisted for DV and medical examination, taking zone preferences into account. For equal combined merit, the older candidate ranks higher. If ages are also equal, alphabetical order of the given name, not the surname, decides (para 12.4(b)). Appointment still depends on the medical fitness test and on verification of documents and antecedents (para 12.4(c)).
| Stage | Questions | Time | Negative marking | Qualifying rule | CEN reference |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| CBT-2 Part-A | 100 | 90 minutes | 1/3 per wrong answer | UR and EWS 40%, OBC (NCL) 30%, SC 30%, ST 25% (Ex-Servicemen by community) | para 12.2(f)(ii), (iii), (vii) |
| CBT-2 Part-B | 75 | 60 minutes | 1/3 per wrong answer | 35% for all candidates, whatever the community | para 12.2(f)(v), (i)(B) |
| CBAT | Battery-wise; the notice gives no total | Per battery | None | T-score of 42 in each battery, separately | para 12.3(c), (d), (f) |
| Merit for document verification | Not applicable | Not applicable | Not applicable | 50:50 weight on CBT-2 Part-A and CBAT; ties go to the older candidate, then alphabetical order of the given name | para 12.4(a), (b) |
Eligibility Check Before You Study
Eligibility runs on three different dates, and they are easy to confuse. Age is measured on 1 July 2026 (para 5.0). Caste, category and other benefits, such as fee concession and age relaxation, are fixed on the closing date of the online application, 14 June 2026 (instruction (v)). The educational or technical qualification must be held on the closing date, and a candidate still awaiting a final result is not eligible to apply (para 1.4 and para 6.0(b) and (c)). The RRB accepts an application only provisionally and checks the certificates at document verification (instruction (iv)).
The age limit is 18 to 30 years as on 1 July 2026, but the notice fixes the effective limit through a date-of-birth window for each group (para 5.2), reproduced in the table below. Read the window literally. The earliest UR date of birth is 02.07.1996, so a candidate born on 1 July 1996 falls outside it and would be exactly 30 on 1 July 2026. Para 5.1 gives the community relaxations: 5 years for SC and ST candidates and 3 years for OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) candidates. It also gives upper-age limits for other groups: ex-servicemen, serving Group C and erstwhile Group D railway staff with at least three years' service, women who are widowed, divorced or judicially separated and not remarried, railway quasi-administrative staff, and Course Completed Act Apprentices. SC, ST and OBC (NCL) candidates who apply against UR vacancies get no community relaxation (para 5.2(ii)). Where two relaxations apply, the candidate gets the larger one, and they are not added (para 5.2(i)). The windows in the table apply to the 18-30 age group; a candidate claiming one of the para 5.1 status limits must check that limit in the notice.
Annexure-A lists the post as Assistant Loco Pilot, medical standard A1, and 'Not Suitable' for persons with benchmark disabilities. Three routes are accepted. The first is matriculation or SSLC with an ITI from an NCVT or SCVT institution in a listed trade, such as Fitter, Electrician or Wireman. The second is matriculation or SSLC with a Course Completed Act Apprenticeship in those trades. The third is matriculation or SSLC with a three-year diploma in Mechanical, Electrical, Electronics or Automobile Engineering in lieu of ITI. A degree in those engineering disciplines is accepted in lieu of the diploma.
The medical standard is A-1: distant vision of 6/6 in each eye without glasses, tested with a fogging test, and near vision of 0.6 in each eye without glasses. Candidates must also pass tests for colour, binocular, field, night and mesopic vision. Para 3.0 calls these standards indicative and refers candidates to Chapter 5 of the Indian Railway Medical Manual. Anyone who has had LASIK or any other surgery to correct a refractive error is not eligible (para 3.0(b)). The self-declaration at application covers this point and conditions such as diabetes and hypertension (para 13.3(d)).
| Category | Upper-age relaxation (para 5.1) | Not born before (para 5.2) | Not born after, all categories (para 5.2) |
|---|---|---|---|
| UR and EWS (includes OBC-CL) | None for the community rows. Para 5.1 status limits (ex-servicemen, serving railway staff, widowed or divorced women, apprentices) still apply to UR and EWS candidates who qualify for them. | 02.07.1996 | 01.07.2008 |
| OBC (NCL) | 3 years | 02.07.1993 | 01.07.2008 |
| SC and ST | 5 years | 02.07.1991 | 01.07.2008 |
Scoring Arithmetic: Negative Marking and Guessing
The raw score is the number of correct answers minus one-third of the number of wrong answers: score = C - W/3. Blank answers carry no mark and no deduction, because the notice applies the deduction only to wrong answers (para 12.1(c)(iii)). On a paper with 45 correct and 15 wrong answers, the score is 45 - 15/3 = 45 - 5 = 40 marks. The common mistake is to deduct a full mark for each wrong answer. On that same paper it gives 30, which understates the score by 10 marks.
